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When did F become S? Why?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Were does Tifinagh come from?When and how did English become the Lingua Franca?Why did English become Lingua Franca of the modern world?When did English become a major subject in Japanese schools?When and how (why) did the idea that gender is not biological startWhen did French become the official language of France?When did Ireland become majority English-speakingOrigin of “It won't be done by next Tuesday”When did the British gentry stop wearing wigs?What is the earliest example of the usage of 'Nazis' to refer clearly and exclusively to the National-Socialists?










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I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



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    2















    I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



    What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










    share|improve this question
























      2












      2








      2








      I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



      What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










      share|improve this question














      I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



      What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?







      18th-century language






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      asked 2 hours ago









      Ryan_LRyan_L

      24925




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          4














          There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



          The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




          In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




          See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And a ſ cousin, the German ß.



          Anecdotally, Hungarian also has a similar but possibly unrelated sound: ssz. I say unrelated because Hungarian is a Finno-Ugric language rather than a Latin, Germanic, or Slavic one. I've no idea if the sound was borrowed, or if it evolved earlier in the Indo-European language family. I've asked in the Linguistics SE about the actual sound's history, hoping for much better answers than this one.






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            There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



            The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




            In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




            See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And a ſ cousin, the German ß.



            Anecdotally, Hungarian also has a similar but possibly unrelated sound: ssz. I say unrelated because Hungarian is a Finno-Ugric language rather than a Latin, Germanic, or Slavic one. I've no idea if the sound was borrowed, or if it evolved earlier in the Indo-European language family. I've asked in the Linguistics SE about the actual sound's history, hoping for much better answers than this one.






            share|improve this answer





























              4














              There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



              The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




              In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




              See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And a ſ cousin, the German ß.



              Anecdotally, Hungarian also has a similar but possibly unrelated sound: ssz. I say unrelated because Hungarian is a Finno-Ugric language rather than a Latin, Germanic, or Slavic one. I've no idea if the sound was borrowed, or if it evolved earlier in the Indo-European language family. I've asked in the Linguistics SE about the actual sound's history, hoping for much better answers than this one.






              share|improve this answer



























                4












                4








                4







                There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



                The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




                In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




                See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And a ſ cousin, the German ß.



                Anecdotally, Hungarian also has a similar but possibly unrelated sound: ssz. I say unrelated because Hungarian is a Finno-Ugric language rather than a Latin, Germanic, or Slavic one. I've no idea if the sound was borrowed, or if it evolved earlier in the Indo-European language family. I've asked in the Linguistics SE about the actual sound's history, hoping for much better answers than this one.






                share|improve this answer















                There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



                The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the wiki article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




                In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




                See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And a ſ cousin, the German ß.



                Anecdotally, Hungarian also has a similar but possibly unrelated sound: ssz. I say unrelated because Hungarian is a Finno-Ugric language rather than a Latin, Germanic, or Slavic one. I've no idea if the sound was borrowed, or if it evolved earlier in the Indo-European language family. I've asked in the Linguistics SE about the actual sound's history, hoping for much better answers than this one.







                share|improve this answer














                share|improve this answer



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                answered 1 hour ago









                Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

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