Multiple regression results help The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Not-significant F but a significant coefficient in multiple linear regressionWhen to transform predictor variables when doing multiple regression?Combining multiple imputation results for hierarchical regression in SPSSHow to deal with different outcomes between pairwise correlations and multiple regressionProbing effects in a multivariate multiple regressionPredictor flipping sign in regression with no multicollinearityMeta analysis of Multiple regressionWhat is the difference between each predictor's standardized betas (from multiple regression) and it's Pearson's correlation coefficient?Multiple linear regression coefficients meaningWhat is the correct way to follow up a multivariate multiple regression?
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Multiple regression results help
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Not-significant F but a significant coefficient in multiple linear regressionWhen to transform predictor variables when doing multiple regression?Combining multiple imputation results for hierarchical regression in SPSSHow to deal with different outcomes between pairwise correlations and multiple regressionProbing effects in a multivariate multiple regressionPredictor flipping sign in regression with no multicollinearityMeta analysis of Multiple regressionWhat is the difference between each predictor's standardized betas (from multiple regression) and it's Pearson's correlation coefficient?Multiple linear regression coefficients meaningWhat is the correct way to follow up a multivariate multiple regression?
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For my first ever research paper I've run a hierarchal multiple linear regression with two predictors and one outcome variable, however I don't understand my results. I've found predictor A to be a significant predictor for my outcome variable alone. However, when both my predictors are in the model, predictor A is not a significant predictor, only predictor B is. How can this be if predictor A was significant in the first model? How does predictor B change how significant predictor A is?
Thank you!
multiple-regression mlr
asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
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For my first ever research paper I've run a hierarchal multiple linear regression with two predictors and one outcome variable, however I don't understand my results. I've found predictor A to be a significant predictor for my outcome variable alone. However, when both my predictors are in the model, predictor A is not a significant predictor, only predictor B is. How can this be if predictor A was significant in the first model? How does predictor B change how significant predictor A is?
Thank you!
multiple-regression mlr
asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
New contributor
ummmm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For my first ever research paper I've run a hierarchal multiple linear regression with two predictors and one outcome variable, however I don't understand my results. I've found predictor A to be a significant predictor for my outcome variable alone. However, when both my predictors are in the model, predictor A is not a significant predictor, only predictor B is. How can this be if predictor A was significant in the first model? How does predictor B change how significant predictor A is?
Thank you!
multiple-regression mlr
asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
New contributor
ummmm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
For my first ever research paper I've run a hierarchal multiple linear regression with two predictors and one outcome variable, however I don't understand my results. I've found predictor A to be a significant predictor for my outcome variable alone. However, when both my predictors are in the model, predictor A is not a significant predictor, only predictor B is. How can this be if predictor A was significant in the first model? How does predictor B change how significant predictor A is?
Thank you!
multiple-regression mlr
multiple-regression mlr
asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
New contributor
ummmm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
New contributor
ummmm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
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ummmm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
asked 10 hours ago
ummmmummmm
111
111
New contributor
ummmm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
regression coefficients reflect the simultaneous effects of multiple predictors. If the two predictors are inter-dependent (i.e. correlated) the results can differ from single input models.
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
The tests in multiple regression are "added last" tests. That means they test whether the model significantly improves after including the extra variable in a regression that contains all other predictors.
In your model with no predictors, adding A improves the model, so the test of A is significant in the model with only A.
In a model with A already in the model, adding B improves the model, so the test of B is significant in the model with A and B. But in a model with B already in the model, adding A doesn't improve the model, so the test of A is not significant in the model with A and B. B is doing all the work that A would do, so adding A doesn't improve the model beyond B.
As @IrishStat mentioned, this can occur when A and B are correlated (positively or negatively) with each other. It's a fairly common occurrence in regression modeling. The conclusion you might draw is that A predicts the outcome when B is not in the model (i.e., unavailable), but after including B, A doesn't do much more to predict the outcome. Unfortunately, without more information about the causal structure of your variables, there is little more interpretation available.
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To expand a little on @Noah and @IrishStat's answers, in a multiple regression, coefficients for each independent variable/predictor are estimated to obtain the direct effect of each variable, using variation unique to that variable and the variable's correlation with the outcome variable, not using variation shared by predictors. (In technical terms, we are talking about variance and covariance of these variables.) The less unique variation there is, the less significant the estimate will become.
So why, in your example, did you end up with an insignificant predictor A when B was added, and not with a significant predictor A and insignificant predictor B? It is likely because the proportion of variance of predictor A that it has in common with predictor B is larger than the proportion of variance of predictor B that it has in common with predictor A.
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
regression coefficients reflect the simultaneous effects of multiple predictors. If the two predictors are inter-dependent (i.e. correlated) the results can differ from single input models.
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
regression coefficients reflect the simultaneous effects of multiple predictors. If the two predictors are inter-dependent (i.e. correlated) the results can differ from single input models.
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
regression coefficients reflect the simultaneous effects of multiple predictors. If the two predictors are inter-dependent (i.e. correlated) the results can differ from single input models.
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
$endgroup$
regression coefficients reflect the simultaneous effects of multiple predictors. If the two predictors are inter-dependent (i.e. correlated) the results can differ from single input models.
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
answered 8 hours ago
IrishStatIrishStat
21.4k42342
21.4k42342
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The tests in multiple regression are "added last" tests. That means they test whether the model significantly improves after including the extra variable in a regression that contains all other predictors.
In your model with no predictors, adding A improves the model, so the test of A is significant in the model with only A.
In a model with A already in the model, adding B improves the model, so the test of B is significant in the model with A and B. But in a model with B already in the model, adding A doesn't improve the model, so the test of A is not significant in the model with A and B. B is doing all the work that A would do, so adding A doesn't improve the model beyond B.
As @IrishStat mentioned, this can occur when A and B are correlated (positively or negatively) with each other. It's a fairly common occurrence in regression modeling. The conclusion you might draw is that A predicts the outcome when B is not in the model (i.e., unavailable), but after including B, A doesn't do much more to predict the outcome. Unfortunately, without more information about the causal structure of your variables, there is little more interpretation available.
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The tests in multiple regression are "added last" tests. That means they test whether the model significantly improves after including the extra variable in a regression that contains all other predictors.
In your model with no predictors, adding A improves the model, so the test of A is significant in the model with only A.
In a model with A already in the model, adding B improves the model, so the test of B is significant in the model with A and B. But in a model with B already in the model, adding A doesn't improve the model, so the test of A is not significant in the model with A and B. B is doing all the work that A would do, so adding A doesn't improve the model beyond B.
As @IrishStat mentioned, this can occur when A and B are correlated (positively or negatively) with each other. It's a fairly common occurrence in regression modeling. The conclusion you might draw is that A predicts the outcome when B is not in the model (i.e., unavailable), but after including B, A doesn't do much more to predict the outcome. Unfortunately, without more information about the causal structure of your variables, there is little more interpretation available.
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The tests in multiple regression are "added last" tests. That means they test whether the model significantly improves after including the extra variable in a regression that contains all other predictors.
In your model with no predictors, adding A improves the model, so the test of A is significant in the model with only A.
In a model with A already in the model, adding B improves the model, so the test of B is significant in the model with A and B. But in a model with B already in the model, adding A doesn't improve the model, so the test of A is not significant in the model with A and B. B is doing all the work that A would do, so adding A doesn't improve the model beyond B.
As @IrishStat mentioned, this can occur when A and B are correlated (positively or negatively) with each other. It's a fairly common occurrence in regression modeling. The conclusion you might draw is that A predicts the outcome when B is not in the model (i.e., unavailable), but after including B, A doesn't do much more to predict the outcome. Unfortunately, without more information about the causal structure of your variables, there is little more interpretation available.
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
$endgroup$
The tests in multiple regression are "added last" tests. That means they test whether the model significantly improves after including the extra variable in a regression that contains all other predictors.
In your model with no predictors, adding A improves the model, so the test of A is significant in the model with only A.
In a model with A already in the model, adding B improves the model, so the test of B is significant in the model with A and B. But in a model with B already in the model, adding A doesn't improve the model, so the test of A is not significant in the model with A and B. B is doing all the work that A would do, so adding A doesn't improve the model beyond B.
As @IrishStat mentioned, this can occur when A and B are correlated (positively or negatively) with each other. It's a fairly common occurrence in regression modeling. The conclusion you might draw is that A predicts the outcome when B is not in the model (i.e., unavailable), but after including B, A doesn't do much more to predict the outcome. Unfortunately, without more information about the causal structure of your variables, there is little more interpretation available.
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
answered 7 hours ago
NoahNoah
3,6811417
3,6811417
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To expand a little on @Noah and @IrishStat's answers, in a multiple regression, coefficients for each independent variable/predictor are estimated to obtain the direct effect of each variable, using variation unique to that variable and the variable's correlation with the outcome variable, not using variation shared by predictors. (In technical terms, we are talking about variance and covariance of these variables.) The less unique variation there is, the less significant the estimate will become.
So why, in your example, did you end up with an insignificant predictor A when B was added, and not with a significant predictor A and insignificant predictor B? It is likely because the proportion of variance of predictor A that it has in common with predictor B is larger than the proportion of variance of predictor B that it has in common with predictor A.
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To expand a little on @Noah and @IrishStat's answers, in a multiple regression, coefficients for each independent variable/predictor are estimated to obtain the direct effect of each variable, using variation unique to that variable and the variable's correlation with the outcome variable, not using variation shared by predictors. (In technical terms, we are talking about variance and covariance of these variables.) The less unique variation there is, the less significant the estimate will become.
So why, in your example, did you end up with an insignificant predictor A when B was added, and not with a significant predictor A and insignificant predictor B? It is likely because the proportion of variance of predictor A that it has in common with predictor B is larger than the proportion of variance of predictor B that it has in common with predictor A.
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To expand a little on @Noah and @IrishStat's answers, in a multiple regression, coefficients for each independent variable/predictor are estimated to obtain the direct effect of each variable, using variation unique to that variable and the variable's correlation with the outcome variable, not using variation shared by predictors. (In technical terms, we are talking about variance and covariance of these variables.) The less unique variation there is, the less significant the estimate will become.
So why, in your example, did you end up with an insignificant predictor A when B was added, and not with a significant predictor A and insignificant predictor B? It is likely because the proportion of variance of predictor A that it has in common with predictor B is larger than the proportion of variance of predictor B that it has in common with predictor A.
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
$endgroup$
To expand a little on @Noah and @IrishStat's answers, in a multiple regression, coefficients for each independent variable/predictor are estimated to obtain the direct effect of each variable, using variation unique to that variable and the variable's correlation with the outcome variable, not using variation shared by predictors. (In technical terms, we are talking about variance and covariance of these variables.) The less unique variation there is, the less significant the estimate will become.
So why, in your example, did you end up with an insignificant predictor A when B was added, and not with a significant predictor A and insignificant predictor B? It is likely because the proportion of variance of predictor A that it has in common with predictor B is larger than the proportion of variance of predictor B that it has in common with predictor A.
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
answered 32 mins ago
AlexKAlexK
1908
1908
add a comment |
add a comment |
ummmm is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
ummmm is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
ummmm is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
ummmm is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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